MP Deployment Exam 2 Practice

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• The function of an application load balancer is?
• Phase III of deployment corresponds to which activity?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five movement control functions?
• The difference between TLS termination at the edge and end-to-end TLS is?
• Which step is used to determine checkpoints?
• Which deployment pattern involves testing changes on a small subset of users before a full rollout?
• What are the two types of convoy control?
• Which description best characterizes Fixed-Port Facilities?
• Movement Program Step 2 requires forecasts based on how many days in the planning cycle?
• Google Kubernetes Engine (GKE) is the managed Kubernetes service for which cloud provider?
• Which area passes movement control of units to AMC?
• Which organization receives & stages discharged equipment?
• Which set comprises the four areas of the APOE?
• A reserved route is exclusive to what?
• Which step is responsible for coordinating the program?
• How many SPCs are Transportation Management Coordinator, Movement Specialists?
• Annex N contains which type of requirements?
• Convoy requirements are documented in which annex?
• Which option is NOT a characteristic of Unimproved Port Facilities?
• In the Movement Program planning process, the first 7 days are considered what and the last 7 days are considered what?
• Why is encryption at rest important in deployments?
• Route 53 is used for?
• Movement from POD to POE is part of which movement type?
• PSA operates under who in the port staging area?
• What does the principle of least privilege mean in cloud deployments?
• What does the practice of using a separate deployment service account achieve?
• What are the two basic movements of route synchronization?
• What do MC HQs specify in a supervised route?
• In the port staging area, which organization provides licensed vehicle operators for all types of equipment?
• Which organization releases equipment to unit?
• Which practice makes infrastructure changes auditable and reversible through version control and repeatable provisioning?
• What is the purpose of the alert holding area?
• Which step in incident response involves restoring services to normal operation?
• What do RPO and RTO stand for in disaster recovery planning?
• What must the origin MCT do when they receive the movement request?
• Which of the following is a principle of deployment?
• What is the role of an artifact repository in deployment?
• The role of an ELK/EFK stack in deployments is?
• The primary purpose of an ELK/EFK stack is?
• What does SDCC manage?
• Which feature of a deployment pipeline primarily supports compliance and auditing?
• In a canary deployment, what metric would you monitor to decide whether to increase traffic to the new version?
• In Google Cloud, what service provides managed Kubernetes?
• Which enlisted rank is the Transportation Management Coordinator, Senior Movement NCO in the MCT?
• Why are release notes important in deployment processes?
• Prometheus is primarily used for?
• HashiCorp Vault is used for?
• In canary deployments, what is a recommended safety practice?
• How do versioned artifacts support deployment rollbacks?
• What technique enables zero-downtime database schema changes?
• What is the primary benefit of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) tooling like Terraform?
• What deployment approach updates instances incrementally to avoid taking down the entire system at once?
• Which route type is closed to all traffic due to safety or capacity concerns?
• Which rollback strategy switches traffic back to the previously stable environment?
• Which technique enables zero-downtime database schema changes?
• In migration strategy, why use backward-compatible changes?
• Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) is the managed Kubernetes service for which cloud provider?
• What are the two types of movement plans?
• What is a safe practice when performing canary deployments for rollback?
• Under MCT Allocations, how many MCTs are allocated per Sustainment Brigade in Theater?
• Which organization operates in SPOD operations area?
• In the Movement Program, the last 7 days are described as what?
• What is the purpose of the loading ramp area?
• Which element refers to allied support in the immediate movement context?
• Yellow TAT is described as what?
• DD 1387 corresponds to which of the following forms?
• The OPORD format used for movement plans consists of how many paragraphs?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the MCT Allocations?
• Which organization provides licensed vehicle operators for all types of equipment in the port staging area?
• In container orchestration, what is the fundamental purpose of a deployment in terms of desired state and updates?
• In the Movement Program, which step comes after Step 2?
• Container Packing Certificate corresponds to which DoD form?
• Which of the following is used for centralized secrets management, dynamic credentials, and rotation?
• Why are runbooks essential for deployment operations?
• Which route type provides full control by MC HQs?
• Which option represents the MVT Control Officer title within an MCT?
• What are the 3 types of water terminal locations?
• What is the main principle of immutable infrastructure?
• What is distributed tracing used for in microservices deployments?
• In AWS, what service is commonly used for container orchestration?
• What does blast radius refer to in deployment security?
• After a failed deployment, what is a common rollback procedure?
• NTAT refers to which of the following?
• Who validates movement plans and how often?
• Why is data locality important in deployments?
• Red TAT is described as what?
• DoD multimodal dangerous goods declaration corresponds to which form?
• Which organization is associated with SPOD operations?
• What practice contributes to zero-downtime migrations in practice?
• RSOI stands for?
• Which of the following is a control measure of route synchronization?
• In the call forward area, which two entities share responsibility?
• The 463L pallet weighs how many pounds without cargo?
• How many SSGs are Transportation Management Coordinator, Movement Supervisors in the MCT?
• Which organization receives & stages discharged equipment in the port staging area?
• What type of control is exercised in a dispatch route?
• Who is responsible for the loading ramp area?
• Which statement defines GitOps in deployment workflows?
• Which step involves formatting and publishing the Movement Program?
• Which of the following descriptions best characterizes Fixed-Port Facilities?
• Which statement describes Unimproved Port Facilities?
• How does Ansible differ from Terraform in deployment workflows?
• A VPC is?
• Annex O contains which type of requirements?
• In the alert holding area, the control of unit aircraft/loads is transferred from ____ to ____
• What does the 12-factor app principle imply for deployment?
• NTAT stands for which of the following?
• Which statement about immutable infrastructure is correct?
• In movement logistics, NTAT refers to which?
• Which organization may provide life support / services for deploying unit?
• Which organization assists units in onward movement?
• Under MCT Allocations, how many MCTs per 1000 miles of each MSR in DIV/Corps, Theater & Port?
• Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (EKS) is the managed Kubernetes service for which cloud provider?
• Which statement describes Bare Beach Facilities?
• What is a Docker image and what is a container?
• Which term describes moving units from one place to another in the immediate movement context?
• Annex M contains which type of requirements?
• Why is dependency management critical in deployment pipelines?
• What is the purpose of a secrets manager in deployment pipelines?
• Which area is primarily used to receive convoys and process vehicles before staging for loading?
• The three pillars of observability are?
• Which practice helps prevent resource waste when demand drops?
• How do feature flags enable safer deployments?
• Who executes route synchronization for ground supply routes in the operations area?
• Which deployment strategy minimizes downtime by switching all traffic to a newly provisioned identical environment after validation?
• How can you achieve zero-downtime migrations in practice?
• What is the purpose of backups in deployment planning?
• Which organization stages equipment in the port staging area?
• Annex L contains which type of requirements?
• The servicing MCT is the immediate interface for Army units requesting transportation support when which condition occurs?
• What is the role of a Kubernetes Deployment object?
• In deployment tooling, which approach primarily provisions infrastructure, rather than configuring software on it?
• What is the difference between immutable and mutable infrastructure?
• Whose responsibility is the call forward area?
• Which step involves determining shortfalls and recommended COAs?
• How many soldiers are in the modular MCT?
• Movement Program forecasting should be based on a planning cycle of how many days?
• What term describes coordinating movement priorities across routes?
• What is a best practice for canary deployment safety?
• In what format is a movement plan written?
• Which of the following represents an officer position within an MCT?
• Who is responsible for the marshalling area?
• Bare Beach Facilities are associated with which operation?
• Which pair of factors are commonly considered in multi-region deployments?
• Who is the first point of contact for other DOD organizations needing Army common user transportation?
• Is movement credit required in a dispatch route?
• In the Movement Program, which step comes first?
• What are the dimensions of the 463L pallet and its maximum cargo load?
• The primary function of an application load balancer is to ?
• In Azure, what service handles managed Kubernetes clusters?
• Why maintain separate dev/stage/prod environments?
• What are common steps in incident response during deployment?
• Which organization may provide life support / services for deploying units?
• What is generated during operations in the immediate movement process?
• Which organization takes movement control of units after the loading ramp area?
• The movement request is submitted by which entity, and when is it complete?
• What is the primary goal of a CI/CD pipeline in deployment?
• How do deployment pipelines support compliance and auditing?
• What are two key considerations in multi-region deployments?
• Which statement best describes RPO in disaster recovery?
• Which organization discharges unit equipment from vessel?
• What is the purpose of the call forward area?
• Distinguish deployment from release in software delivery.
• Motor Vehicle Inspection for transporting hazardous materials corresponds to which DoD form?
• Deployment Movement Plan moves which units and to where?
• What best describes a Helm chart in Kubernetes?
• Which reference covers deployment?
• Which statement about planned movement in route synchronization is true?
• Which organization coordinates & tasks for transportation assets required by deploying unit?
• What type of control is exercised in a supervised route?
• What is the difference between load testing and stress testing?
• Why is data locality important in deployments?
• What does semantic versioning communicate?
• When is a dispatch route designated?
• Which DoD form is the pallet identifier?
• In the context of immediate movement, what term denotes higher priority?
• Mobilization Movement Plan moves which units where?
• Name a technique to reduce cloud deployment costs without sacrificing availability.
• Encryption at rest protects data in which state?